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ADULTERY WAS NOT INCLUSIVE OF HAVING SEX WITH A SINGLE PERSON (Prove me wrong)

The Civil Writer Magazine

What is adultery? It is voluntary sexual intercourse between two married people who are not spouses. What is not stated is the other person involved can be single therefore adultery would not be committed nor fornication that is the passing of money to a prostitute for sex. The operative word for adultery is sex between married people who are not (married) to each other. For you pondering theologians, how was it that Solomon and David were able to have multiple wives and escape committing adultery. Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines, and David had 8 wives. Polygyny is justified in the Bible because it initially involved a relationship with a single woman that a married man eventually married. Adultery doesn't cancel out polygyny a practice of having multiple wives. If so, Solomon and David would be sinning which the scriptures never alluded to. Even Moses had two wives so why wasn't he committing adultery under the laws titled after him. Uneducated Christian ministers not well verse in Judaism have ignorantly redefined adultery to be inclusive of single women which should bring the question into mind; how was polygyny accomplished without sin. Polygyny is found in the Old Testament and over 40 important figures had more than one wife. Bathsheba was King David's most famous and controversial wife in part because their marriage came after an illicit extramarital affair (adultery) at the height of David's reign over Judah and Israel (circa 1005–965 BCE).